Is it permitted to use the leftover oil of the candle went out in middle of the first half an hour?
Learn ר”ן who explains based on the Rif it is permitted. And brings the position of the גאונים who say one is prohibited from using the leftover oil even after chanukah
According to Tosfos is the oil that remains even after the candle lit for half an hour prohibited to be used?
Why is the remaining oil different than the leftover of other Mitzvos which are permitted to be used after the Yom tov – for example the wood used for ones Sukkah?
What is the difference between Tosfos תוס’ “והתניא and the Rambam?
See ביאור הלכה ס’ שי”ט סע’ א “ובורר
Learn גמרא שבת דף עד. “כי אתא רב דימי” (eight lines from bottom of the Amud) until “חזקיה
Questions:
What is the reason to suggest it is prohibited to remove good from the bad when serving to the guests immediately?
Learn תוס’ “אלא ידענא
Clarify why according to Tosfos it might possibly be prohibited.
What is the uncertainty?
Learn מהר”ם who asks a question on Tosfos
Learn ח’ ב”ח for a different explanation as to why remove good from the bad when serving to the guests immediately could possibly be prohibited.
Learn רש”י “ושדא קמייהו
Rashi says the fruit was mixed with leaves and by spreading it out on the table the fruit separated from the leaves automatically.
Why according to Rashi is there a potential issue of borrer?
Is this the same explanation of Tosfos?
Learn מהרש”א who asks on Rashi – Why is it permitted to scatter the contents causing the fruit to become unmixed. Why isn’t this considered Borer as the objective of Borer was accomplished – separating the fruit from the leaves?
Is this also a question according to the Ramban?
Halachic Conclusion:
Is it permitted to cause a mixture to become unmixed by scattering the mixture?
Learn רמב”ן פ’ נצבים ל:יא-יד who learns the mitzvah of Teshuva from a pasuk in Sefer Devarim and the obligation to say vidui from the words “its in your mouth and heart ot do”
See the header introductory line of the Rambam of ה’ תשובה פרק א
See משך חכמה פרשת וילך לא:יז “ואמר who asks why should there be a specific mitzvah of Teshuva if one is required to stop and not commit the sin again because of the original command in the torah?
Why does the Gemara compare reciting vidui to immersing in a mikvah?
It seems saying Vidui without stopping to commit the aviera is considered worthless. Why does the Gemara compare reciting vidui to immersing in a mikvah which indicates there is some purification process?